In stock options, why does Implied volatility remain the same for calls and puts ?

If a stock has been going up in price for 30 days straight. At day 30 will the put and call option 30$ from the strike have the same price ? If so, why does this happen ? Isn't it more likely that the price will keep going up ?

Submitted February 16, 2016 at 06:31AM by Dofarian http://ift.tt/1omdZ3W