I'm starting to learn options and one thing I can't figure out is why in-the-money options can sometimes be more expensive than the open market?
For example, at around closing today I could've bought GE for $18.19 and then sold the covered call GE 12/8/17 18 C for $0.45.
Doesn't that mean someone was purchasing the right to pay $18.45 for shares they could've gotten at $18.19? I've got to be misunderstanding how this works, right?
Submitted November 24, 2017 at 03:57PM by JLeeSaxon http://ift.tt/2Ba2KSB
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