I understand that in a firm commitment the underwriter buys all the shares from a company before it goes public, therefore funding the company. But wouldn't that mean the underwriter owns the company since they bought all the shares? Or is it that they just find the company then make the shares to sell on the market?
Submitted August 08, 2014 at 09:43PM by CsteveC http://ift.tt/1os6Zz3
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