Hypothetical here. If slavery had never been abolished throughout much of the world, thus allowing human chattel to continue be traded on open markets, would it be possible to extend to them many of the same financial instruments that we have with other commodities? Futures contracts, exchange traded funds, etc.?
If you think so, lay out an example of how it would work. If you don't, what aspect of a slave's production and trade makes it inherently difficult to represent in financial markets?
Submitted July 18, 2016 at 04:58PM by GiveHim6 http://ift.tt/2a302Eu
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