I posted about OPK a while back because I noticed the CEO of the company purchasing shares on a regular basis. Shortly afterwards the stock moved higher but has since receded back to the $9.50/share level. I noticed today once again the CEO has begun purchasing shares through what appear to be investment companies solely owned by him. I've attached the filing found on the SEC's EDGAR site, can someone more clearly elaborate the meaning of the first footnote because I feel like I might be improperly interpreting it. Thanks!
Submitted October 12, 2016 at 08:39AM by jpoms13 http://ift.tt/2d7d9Xw
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