If one thought a market correction was coming but obviously could not tell exactly when ... could that person both buy and sell positions in the same market with guaranteed stop losses. All they would lose is the spread when it moves passes the stop loss, OTM one way. They would then hedge against the ITM position again until if/when a substantial drop happens. Please can someone tell me why this will not work? Thanks and sorry for the probably obvious question!
Submitted January 31, 2017 at 08:23PM by bengharwood http://ift.tt/2kSpcXV
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